Practice Final Two

Multiple Choice

Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Unlike the cell membrane, the cell wall is

a. found in all organisms. b. composed of a lipid bilayer. c. a flexible barrier. d. made of tough fibers.

____ 2. An animal cell that is surrounded by fresh water will burst because the osmotic pressure causes

a. water to move into the cell. b. water to move out of the cell. c. solutes to move into the cell. d. solutes to move out of the cell.

____ 3. A group of cells that perform similar functions is called a(an)

a. organ. b. organ system. c. tissue. d. division of labor.

____ 4. What are the three parts of an ATP molecule?

a. adenine, thylakoids, stroma b. stroma, grana, chlorophyll c. adenine, ribose, phosphate d. NADH, NADPH, and FADH₂

____ 5. Which of the following affects the rate of photosynthesis?

a. water b. temperature c. light intensity d. all of the above

____ 6. What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?

a. 6O₂ + C₆H₁₂O₆ ® 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + Energy b. 6O₂ + C₆H₁₂O₆ + Energy ® 6CO₂ + 6H₂O c. 6CO₂ + 6H₂O ® 6O₂ + C₆H₁₂O₆ + Energy d. 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + Energy ® 6O₂ + C₆H₁₂O₆

____ 7. Glycolysis requires

a. an energy input. b. oxygen. c. hours to produce many ATP molecules. d. NADP⁺.

____ 8. If you want to control your weight, how long should you exercise aerobically each time that you exercise?

a. at least 90 seconds b. less than 15 minutes c. 15 to 20 minutes d. more than 20 minutes

____ 9. One difference between cell division in plant cells and in animal cells is that plant cells have

a. centrioles. b. centromeres. c. a cell plate. d. chromatin.

____ 10. In eukaryotic cells, the timing of the cell cycle is regulated by

a. the centrioles. b. cyclins. c. the spindle. d. all of the above

____ 11. What is a tumor?

a. an accumulation of cyclins b. a mass of cancer cells c. the rapidly dividing cells found at the site of a wound d. a defective p53 gene

____ 12. A Punnett square shows all of the following EXCEPT

a. all possible results of a genetic cross. b. the genotypes of the offspring. c. the alleles in the gametes of each parent. d. the actual results of a genetic cross.

____ 13. If a pea plant that is heterozygous for round, yellow peas (RrYy) is crossed with a pea plant that is homozygous for round peas but heterozygous for yellow peas (RRYy), how many different phenotypes are their offspring expected to show?

a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16

____ 14. Linked genes

a. are never separated. b. assort independently. c. are on the same chromosome. d. are always recessive.

____ 15. Because of base pairing in DNA, the percentage of

a. adenine molecules in DNA is about equal to the percentage of guanine molecules. b. pyrimidines in DNA is about equal to the percentage of purines. c. purines in DNA is much greater than the percentage of pyrimidines. d. cytosine molecules in DNA is much greater than the percentage of guanine molecules.

____ 16. Why is it possible for an amino acid to be specified by more than one kind of codon?

a. Some codons have the same sequence of nucleotides. b. There are 64 different kinds of codons but only 20 amino acids. c. Some codons do not specify an amino acid. d. The codon AUG codes for the amino acid methionine and serves as the “start” codon for protein synthesis.

____ 17. Mutations are useful in selective breeding because they

a. help maintain the desired characteristics of animal breeds. b. are usually found in hybrids. c. are usually beneficial. d. can be used to enhance the process of hybridization.

____ 18. One function of gel electrophoresis is to

a. separate DNA fragments. b. cut DNA. c. recombine DNA. d. extract DNA.

____ 19. Human females produce egg cells that have

a. one X chromosome. b. two X chromosomes. c. one X or one Y chromosome. d. one X and one Y chromosome.

____ 20. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a. A person with Huntington’s disease might not pass the allele for the disease to his or her offspring. b. A person with Huntington’s disease might be homozygous for the disease. c. Huntington’s disease is caused by a recessive allele. d. A person who inherits one allele for Huntington’s disease will develop the disease.

____ 21. The process of DNA fingerprinting is based on the fact that

a. the most important genes are different among most people. b. no two people, except identical twins, have exactly the same DNA. c. most genes are dominant. d. most people have DNA that contains repeats.

____ 22. According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, the individuals that tend to survive are those that have

a. characteristics their parents acquired by use and disuse. b. characteristics that plant and animal breeders value. c. the greatest number of offspring. d. variations best suited to the environment.

____ 23. Charles Darwin viewed the fossil record as

a. evidence that Earth was thousands of years old. b. a detailed record of evolution. c. interesting but unrelated to the evolution of modern species. d. evidence that traits are acquired through use or disuse.

____ 24. Which concept is NOT included in the modern theory of evolution?

a. descent with modification b. natural selection c. transmission of acquired characteristics d. competition among the members of a population

____ 25. Interbreeding among members of a population results in

a. different types of alleles in the gene pool. b. changes in the relative frequencies of alleles in the gene pool. c. no changes in the relative frequencies of alleles in the gene pool. d. an absence of genetic variation in the population.

____ 26. One similarity between natural selection and genetic drift is that both events

a. are based completely on chance. b. begin with one or more mutations. c. involve a change in a population’s allele frequencies. d. take place only in very small groups.

____ 27. One of the conditions required to maintain genetic equilibrium is

a. natural selection. b. mutations. c. nonrandom mating. d. no movement into or out of the population.

Short Answer

28. List the four levels of organization in order from simplest to most complex.

29. How might you test the effects of cell size on the extent of diffusion?

30. What are two kinds of information that scientists attempt to infer from the study of fossils?

31. What attributes of the garden pea plant made it an excellent organism for Gregor Mendel’s genetic studies?

32. What is the main function of the electron transport chain?

33. Describe glycolysis in terms of energy input, energy output, and net gain of ATP.

34. How does cell division solve the problems of excessive cell growth?

35. What is cellular respiration?

36. In artificial selection, what factor substitutes for naturally occurring selection pressures?

37. Define homologous chromosomes.

38. If the percentage of guanine in the DNA of a certain species decreased by 5 percent over time, what would you expect to have happened to the percentage of adenine in that DNA?

Figure 8-3

39. Identify the structure shown in Figure 8-3 and describe its function.

Figure 12-2

40. According to Figure 12-2, what codons specify the amino acid arginine?

41. If malaria were eliminated from a certain area, how do you think the frequency of the sickle cell allele in that area would change? Explain.

42. Which population, one of nearly identical organisms or one of phenotypically varied organisms, would be more likely to remain in genetic equilibrium?

43. How are human chromosomes 21 and 22 similar?

44. What did observations of the tortoises of the Galápagos lead Charles Darwin to hypothesize about these animals’ ancestry?

45. What role does oxygen play in the electron transport chain?

46. Would a trait that has only two distinct phenotypes more likely be a single-gene trait or a polygenic trait? How do you know?

47. Explain how heterotrophs get their energy from the sun even though they cannot make their own food.

48. Why would breeders want to increase a population’s mutation rate?

49. Interpret the general chemical equation, X + Y ® XY, in words.

50. Is an allele for a trait that has no effect on a species’ fitness affected by natural selection? Explain.

51. What happens when a phosphate group is removed from an ATP molecule?

52. Name two essential roles that enzymes play in cells.

53. What is one of the most important factors in determining whether a chemical reaction will occur?

54. Define diffusion.

55. What happens to the number of chromosomes per cell during meiosis?

56. How is the DNA sequence of the allele that causes cystic fibrosis different from that of the normal allele?

57. What does the energy come from that enables you to breathe and think?

58. What was the scientific value of the specimens that Charles Darwin brought back to England?

59. Many injuries to the skin heal completely, whereas injuries to the spinal cord, which is made up mainly of nerve cells, may result in paralysis. What characteristic of the two types of cells in these body parts accounts for this difference?

60. What are two functions of the nucleus?

61. A man who does not have hemophilia and a woman who is a carrier of the disorder have a son. What is the probability that their son has hemophilia?

Figure 7-1

62. Identify each of the cell structures indicated in Figure 7-1. Use these terms: nucleus, mitochondrion, ribosome, cell membrane, smooth endoplasmic reticulum, rough endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus, Golgi apparatus, cytoplasm.

63. How many recessive alleles for a trait must an organism inherit in order to show that trait?

64. What is a mutation?

Figure 15-1

65. What did Charles Darwin conclude about the existence of a common ancestor for all life?

66. What are structures C and D in Figure 13-1, and what is their significance?

67. What effect does cell size have on a cell’s ability to efficiently carry out its activities?

68. A student exposed two plants to only red light and two plants to only green light. Which plants should grow better? Why?

69. Why is the Krebs cycle also known as the citric acid cycle?

70. Explain how stabilizing selection would affect a graph of the distribution of phenotypes for a trait.

71. Write the overall equation for photosynthesis in both symbols and words.

72. Cells grown in a petri dish tend to divide until they form a thin layer covering the bottom of the dish. How would you expect cancer cells to behave in this situation?

73. What is mass number?

Other

USING SCIENCE SKILLS

Classification of Four Organisms
	Corn	Whale Shark	Humpback Whale	Spider Monkey
Kingdom	Plantae	Animalia	Animalia	Animalia
Phylum	Anthophyta	Chordata	Chordata	Chordata
Class	Monocotyledones	Chondrichthyes	Mammalia	Mammalia
Order	Commelinales	Squaliformes	Cetacea	Primates
Family	Poaceae	Rhincodontidae	Balaenopteridae	Atelidae
Genus	Zea	Rhincodon	Megaptera	Ateles
Species	Zea mays	Rhinacodon typus	Megaptera novaeangilae	Ateles paniscus

Figure 18-4

74. Using Tables and Graphs How many different kingdoms are represented by the organisms listed in Figure 18-4? What are they?

75. Using Tables and Graphs Which level of taxonomic category shown in Figure 18-4 indicates whether an organism is a mammal or not?